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The Mitzva to Destroy
Amalek
and Our Moral
Qualms
By Rav Elchanan
Samet
Translated by
Kaeren
Fish
I. THE NATURE OF THE
MITZVA
Following Yehoshua's defeat of Amalek in Refidim, the Torah narrates
(Shemot 17:14-16):
And God said to
Moshe: "Write this for a remembrance in a book, and repeat it in Yehoshua's
ears, that I will surely wipe out the memory of Amalek from under the
heavens."
And Moshe built an
altar... and he said, "For God has sworn by His throne that He will be at war
with Amalek from generation to generation."
Later, we are given a
commandment to wage this war (Devarim 25:19):
You shall wipe out
the memory of Amalek from under the heavens; you shall not
forget.
Shaul, the first king
of Israel, was specifically commanded by
Shmuel the prophet (Shmuel I 15:3) to fulfill this
mitzva:
... And now, go and
smite Amalek and destroy everything that is theirs; do not have mercy on them,
but kill every man and woman, child and infant, ox, sheep, camel and
donkey.
This mitzva applies
to all generations, and is listed as one of the 613 commandments (e.g. positive
mitzva #188 in Rambam's Sefer Ha-Mitzvot, and mitzva #604 in Sefer
Ha-Chinukh).
The mitzva is not applicable today, since the nation of Amalek no longer
exists. Yet this does not exempt us from the obligation to study and understand
it. Prima facie, this seems to be a commandment of genocide, which
understandably arouses in us a great deal of discomfort. In general, we give no
expression to our inner sense of moral unease. But to ignore a psychological
fact, to deny what we are feeling, is unhealthy. It is better to formulate the
question directly and to attempt openly and honestly to deal with it. "Then I
shall not be ashamed, when I look at all Your commandments" (Tehillim
119:6).
The prevalent solution to this problem is treat the mitzva as a war of
ideas, rather than the extermination of a specific nation. According to this
approach, Amalek is no more than a symbol, such that the war with Amalek is
merely a metaphor for the eternal battle to defeat evil or heresy. However,
while there is indeed great symbolic meaning to the war with Amalek, we cannot
ignore its literal and concrete meaning. Amalek was a real nation that we were
(and are) commanded to destroy.
II. HISTORICAL
BACKDROP
Let us examine the broad biblical context of this mitzva. In biblical
terms, the war with Amalek is defined as a "war of cherem," of
destruction or extermination, as king Shaul was commanded: "Go and smite Amalek
and DESTROY EVERYTHING (ve-hacharamtem) that is theirs..." A war of
cherem was always carried out with religious motives, and in a case where
everything had to be destroyed, the enemy nation was all put to death and no
booty was taken. The taking of booty in such a war was considered a most serious
sin. We encounter several wars of cherem in the Tanakh: the war with
Arad
(Bamidbar 21:1-3), the war of Yericho (Yehoshua 6:17-21), and even
the mitzva of to wipe out the "ir ha-nidachat" – an Israelite city that
has been corrupted to serve idols (Devarim
13:13-19).
The idea of a war of cherem is not unique to Israel,
but was rather an accepted norm among ancient nations. Thus we learn, for
example, from the Mesha Stone (lines 11-18) that King Mesha's war with the
Israelite cities of Atarot and Nevo was a war of cherem. Not only do the
facts described there match the rules of a war of cherem, but with regard
to Nevo it is stated explicitly (line 17) that it was
"exterminated."
In general, the mitzva of cherem was aimed at a certain city (as
in the examples cited above), and therefore its period of validity was
restricted: once the city was exterminated, the war of cherem against it
was over. In a few instances, one thing was left for all generations from the
war of cherem: the burnt mound of the city. This was the case with the
"ir ha-nidachat" (Devarim 13:17): "And it shall be a ruin forever;
it shall not be rebuilt," and also in the case of Yericho (Yehoshua
6:26), "And Yehoshua swore at that time saying, Cursed is the man before God who
will rise up and rebuild this city, Yericho."
In only two instances, the war of cherem applies to NATIONS, and
there it is a mitzva for all generations, requiring war against those nations so
long as they exist. This is so with regard to the war against the seven nations
of Canaan (which is only partially a war of
cherem), and with regard to the war against Amalek. The war with Amalek
is one of complete cherem, but since Amalek is a nomadic nation, their
destruction is not like the destruction of a city: it is not a one-time act, but
rather an ongoing battle "from generation to generation."
[As mentioned, every war of cherem commanded in the Torah has a
religious reason, and this may change from one instance to another. Accordingly,
the scope of the destruction and other details may vary. Thus, the reason for
the war against Amalek differs from the reasons for these other wars of
cherem. However, an examination of reason for God's war against Amalek -
what was so serious about Amalek's act of waging war against Israel when they
came out of Egypt? - lies beyond the scope of the present
discussion.]
Thus, the war against Amalek is not such an outstanding exception against
the backdrop of accepted wartime practices prevalent in the ancient world. This
does not completely ease our discomfort, but it is important to realize that the
mitzvot of the Torah, although valid and relevant for all generations, are also
related to the era in which they were given. In a world where a war of
cherem is an accepted moral norm, Israel
also occasionally engages in such a war for religious reasons. And He who
brought the world to a point where humanity has come to negate the legitimacy of
such wars, also brought about a situation in which "there never was, nor will
there ever be, a [real example of an] 'ir ha-nidachat'" (Sanhedrin
61a), and in which the war against Amalek has no one left to whom it applies,
such that all that is left for us is to study the mitzva in theory and thereby
gain reward.
III. RAMBAM'S
OPINION
In his discussion of this mitzva (Hilkhot Melakhim 6:1-4), the
Rambam introduces an important qualification: the first step to be taken in the
war against Amalek is to offer them peace! If they accept (which entails
accepting the Seven Noachide Laws and paying a tax to the Israelites), "it is
forbidden to violate the treaty with them and to deceive them!" How does this
fit in with the commandment, "You shall wipe out the memory of Amalek from under
the heavens?" The Rambam explains that the mitzva of destroying Amalek (and the
Seven Canaanite Nations) refers only to those who do not accept the option of
peace. The Kesef Mishneh further elucidates, "For if they accept upon
themselves the Seven Laws, then they are no longer considered as belonging to
the category of the Seven Nations or to Amalek, and they are like any upright
gentiles."
How did the Rambam reach this conclusion (to which no explicit dissent is
found among any of the commentators)? The mitzva of wiping out Amalek does
appear to be an absolute command with no possibility of compromise. But the
mitzva of offering the option of peaceful surrender prior to waging war
(Devarim 20:10) also appears unequivocal - it does not differentiate
between different types of wars. As the Rambam writes, "War is not waged against
ANYONE IN THE WORLD unless the possibility of a peaceful surrender is first
offered."
This contradiction can be answered in one of two ways: we may limit the
mitzva to proclaim peace and say that it does not apply in the case of Amalek,
or we may say that the mitzva of war against Amalek applies only after the offer
of peace has been rejected. As concerns the war against Amalek, there is no
direct proof as to which of the above possibilities is correct. But with regard
to a similar contradiction – between the mitzva of proclaiming peace and the
mitzva of cherem against the seven nations of Canaan – there are proofs, both in Sefer Yehoshua
and in the teachings of Chazal, that the proclamation of peace applies even
here. Thus, it becomes apparent that the mitzva of proclaiming peace is indeed
an absolute command that makes no distinction between one type of war and
another.
The significance of the above has far-reaching implications for our
question. The intention behind the mitzva of wiping out Amalek is not to
persecute a nation to the point of total extermination, in such a way that the
nation is left with no escape from its fate. On the contrary, this nation is
exhorted to make peace with Israel. It is only when the offer of
peace is rejected, and a war rages between this nation and Israel,
that the laws of total cherem apply to them. Indeed, the thought that the
Torah desires the extermination of a nation under all circumstances is an
anachronistic idea influenced by modern racism that developed in Europe during the last two centuries. The Giver of the
Torah is the Creator of man, and He is the father of all nations. Why would He
desire the extinction of a nation that He Himself created?
The background to the mitzva of the war against Amalek is completely
ethical-religious in nature, and very far from any racist intent. Amalek
committed a most heinous sin in waging war against Israel as they came out of Egypt. When a
nation sins, the responsibility for the sin is borne not only by the generation
that committed the sin, but also by the generations that follow. The same
applies to Israel: "Our forefathers sinned, and
they are no more; and we suffer for their sins" (Eikha 4:7). Because of
Amalek's terrible sin against God and against Israel, God's
nation was commanded to exact revenge from Amalek and to punish them for their
sin, not allowing the passage of time to dull their memory of the deed and of
the need to repay it.
But the ethical system we are discussing, in which there is sin and
punishment, contains – by its very definition and by its very nature – the means
for a sinner to part with his sin. The assumption underlying this mitzva is that
Amalek is a bitter enemy of Israel, and that he will continue to
be such, and therefore the war against Amalek is a war of cherem. But if
the nation of Amalek wishes to end their hostility towards Israel and agree
to coexist peacefully, then they are abandoning the sin of their forefathers,
and their punishment is likewise then cancelled; "they are like any upright
gentiles."
This moral background to the mitzva of wiping out Amalek is explicit in
the verses that overflow with moral pathos (Devarim
25:17-18):
Remember what Amalek
did to you on the way when you came out of Egypt; how he
came upon you on the way and attacked your rear, all that were following feebly
behind you, when you were weary and faint...
Clearly, the Rambam
arrived at his formulation based on the same moral perception of the
mitzva.
IV. SHAUL AND
AMALEK
We find only one explicit description in Tanakh of the fulfillment
of the mitzva of war against Amalek, in Shmuel I chapter 15 - the obvious
choice for the haftara of Shabbat Zakhor. A detailed narrative
such as this about the fulfillment of the mitzva would seem to provide the
opportunity to put to the test the Rambam's innovative explanation. Let us first
list the questions that we shall need to investigate:
1)
Can any proof be
brought for the nature of the relations between Amalek and Israel in
Shaul's generation? Is Amalek a peaceful nation against whom war is suddenly
declared for some ancient reason, or is Amalek still - after all this time -
Israel's bitter enemy, with the sins of their fathers adding to their own sins
in the present?
2)
Either way, is there
any proof of a proclamation of peace that precedes Shaul's war against
Amalek?
Slightly before the main account of Shaul's battle with Amalek, we read
(14:47-48):
And Shaul
consolidated the kingdom over Israel and waged war against his
enemies all around... And he made an army and smote Amalek, and delivered
Israel from the hand of he that
spoiled them.
The commentators are
divided as to whether the description of the attack against Amalek in this
verse, included in the summary of Shaul's battles, refers to his battle with
Amalek described later in chapter 15, or whether it refers to previous battles
with Amalek that preceded this particular one that is described in detail. In
the opinion of the Radak, "This is what God referred to when He commanded him
(15:3), 'Go and smite Amalek.'" But in the opinion of the Abarbanel, "The text
here is not referring to the war that he waged against Amalek at Shmuel's
command, as suggested by the Radak in his commentary, but rather to previous
battles on other occasions."
If we accept the Abarbanel's opinion, this verse proves that Amalek was
Israel's enemy even before Shaul was
commanded to wage a decisive war against them. But even according to the Radak
and his followers, this verse has significance for our question: Shaul's victory
over Amalek, described in chapter 15, is described in this verse as "THE
DELIVERANCE OF ISRAEL from the hand of he that spoiled them." (We know that
Amalek's regular practice was to instigate trouble against the Israelite
inhabitants of the Negev – see Shoftim
6:3-5 and Shmuel I 30).
The command to Shaul to smite Amalek is repeated twice in our narrative:
once at the beginning of the story (verses 1-3) with the original command to
Shaul, and then again in verse 18, as part of Shmuel's rebuke of Shaul for not
having fulfilled completely what he had been commanded to do. Let us compare
these two sources:
Verse 3: Go and smite
Amalek, and utterly destroy all that is his.
Verse 18: Go and
utterly destroy THOSE SINNERS, Amalek, and fight against them until they are
finished.
What is the meaning of the words added in verse 18, "those sinners"? In
the original command, the reason for attacking Amalek involved only the past
(15:2), "I remember what Amalek did to Israel, how he laid wait for them on the way when
they came up out of Egypt." What does it matter whether
Amalek in the present generation is a nation of "sinners" or a righteous nation?
Again, we have proof that Amalek is being judged not only for the sins of their
forefathers, but also for their own sins in that generation. Shmuel, in his
words of rebuke, wishes to highlight specifically this aspect of Amalek
(well-known to Shaul, and therefore there had been no need to state it
explicitly in the original command) in order to emphasize the gravity of Shaul's
sin.
Before Shmuel executes Agag, the king of Amalek, he explains his action
as repaying Agag "measure for measure:"
Shmuel said, "As your
sword has made women childless, so shall your mother be childless among
women."
This teaches us two
lessons: firstly, that Agag made many women childless by killing their sons;
apparently, the reference is to the murder of Israelites, for which the prophet
now seeks revenge. Secondly, the reason that Shmuel chooses to declare to Agag
for his execution is not based on the deeds committed by Agag's ancestors
against Israel, but rather on the deeds that
he himself has perpetrated. This is reminiscent of Shmuel's emphasis in his
rebuke to Shaul that the command to attack Amalek arose from the fact that they
were "sinners" in that very generation.
All that we have said thus far comes together to create a clear picture:
Amalek is Israel's sworn enemy FROM THE TIME OF
THE EXODUS ONWARDS, and for this he is judged. If he would change his ways and
make peace with Israel, the punishment for both his
deeds and those of his forefathers would be removed. Was this possibility
suggested to him?
In verses 4-6, we find a description of Shaul's preparations for the war
with Amalek, while the war itself is described very briefly in verse
7:
Shaul gathered the
nation and counted them in Tela'im... And Shaul came to a city of Amalek and CONTENDED WITH
THEM in the valley. And Shaul said to the Kenites, "Go, depart, go down from
among the Amalekites, lest I destroy you together with him..." And Shaul smote
Amalek...
What is the meaning
of the words "and he contended with them in the valley" in verse 6? Many
commentators interpret this to mean, "And he fought in the valley." This is a
problematic interpretation, both literally – "riv" (va-yarev) in
Tanakh usually refers to words, not actions – and also from the point of
view of the order. Only in verse 7 is Shaul's battle described, and if it began
already in verse 5, then what would be the point of his appeal to the Kenites
once the battle had already started?
Some answers to these questions have been proposed (see Radak), but the
interpretation that seems to stay closest to the literal meaning of the text is
that of the Malbim:
Since it is not
customary for kings to declare war without some specific reason, as it is
written (Shoftim 11:12), "What have you to do with me, that you have come
to me to wage war against my land?" - therefore Shaul sought some dispute in the
valley that was in front of the cities of Amalek... such that that became the
justification for the war.
What was the content
of that verbal dispute between Shaul and Amalek in the valley? The Malbim
ventures, "Shaul declared that the valley belonged to him, and Amalek disputed
this." He even concludes with the following judgment concerning Shaul:
This also teaches us
that he did not fulfill the mitzva properly, for he should not have sought any
[other] reason but rather [should have attacked] just because God so
commanded... not some other dispute that had nothing to do with
God.
But if we bear in mind the words of the Rambam, that "war is not waged
against ANYONE IN THE WORLD until he is first offered the possibility of peace,
regardless of whether it is a voluntary war or an obligatory one" – even if it
is a war against Amalek – we will easily conclude that the "dispute" with Amalek
was really the required proclamation of peace (i.e., an ultimatum by the
attacker to surrender peacefully on the terms offered and thus to avoid war).
Since Amalek refused to accept this proclamation, due to of their sworn hatred
of Israel (because of which the
negotiations with them are called a "riv"), Shaul launched his attack.
Thus we conclude that – at least from this perspective - Shaul did, in fact,
fulfill the mitzva as required.
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